Yesterday, I posted on a case, Harriss v. Commissioner, T.C. Memo. 2021-31, that led me into a discussion of delegated authority to make deficiency determinations from the Secretary of the Treasury down to employees (by function) in the IRS and related issues, including consents to extend the statute of limitations. Burden of Persuasion As to Proper Delegated Authority for Statutorily Required IRS Action (Here Notice of Deficiency) (Federal Tax Procedure Blog 3/17/21), here. A colleague engaged me on a couple of issues from the blog. I thought I would present the issues here and my cut on the issues. I have reformulated the issues to better present them here:
Issue 1: The courts treat the Forms 872 (Consent to Extend the Time to Assess Tax) and its various iterations, such as Form 872-A (Special Consent to Extend the Time to Assess Tax) used for the statute extension authorized by than § 6501(c)(4)(A), here, as unilateral waivers rather than as contracts.
JAT Response to Issue 1: I again
direct readers to the article: John A.
Townsend & Lawrence R. Jones, Jr., Interpreting Consents to Extend the
Statute of Limitations, 78 Tax Notes 459 (1998), here. But the shorter answer is in the statute
itself, § 6501(c)(4)(A) (bold-face supplied by JAT):
Where, before the expiration of the time prescribed for the assessment of any tax imposed by this title, except the estate tax provided in chapter 11, both the Secretary and the taxpayer have consented in writing to its assessment after such time, the tax may be assessed at any time prior to the expiration of the period agreed upon. The period so agreed upon may be extended by subsequent agreements in writing made before the expiration of the period previously agreed upon.
1. Both the IRS and the taxpayer must sign a consent to reflect the agreement.
2. Both must sign be before
the expiration of the period of limitation (even the aborted writing was after
the period of limitation in Stearns, so that the facts of would give the victory to the IRS under the statute as written now)..
3. The consent is an agreement (see “so agreed” in the statute) which certainly connotes something bilateral rather than just a unilateral waiver. In the law of waiver, waiver is a unilateral not requiring any agreement by the other party. (Of course, if the other party asserts waiver as a defense, the party may be said to be agreeing with the waiver but agreement is not thought of as an agreement in the way § 6501(c)(4)(A) written.) In other words, a waiver is truly unilateral and in the law of waiver there is no requirement that the other party sign or otherwise agree to a waiver for the waiver to be effective. All that is required is that the party waiving do the act necessary to constitute a waiver.
Issue 2: How can a Form 872 be a contract when the benefits flow only one-way – i.e., the IRS gets the benefit but the taxpayer gets nothing of benefit?