Although I think this logic is irrefutable, some courts nevertheless act like they believe otherwise. For example, in Purvis v. Commissioner, T.C. Memo. 2020-13, at *33-*48, here, the Tax Court found that the taxpayers committed civil fraud subject to the penalty under § 6663. The Court concluded after 15 pages analyzing the evidence (*48): “Accordingly, we hold that petitioners are liable for the section 6663(a) fraud penalties for the years at issue.”
The Court then (at *49-*50) considered the reasonable cause defense. But why did the Court do that after the Court found that the taxpayer had intended to violate a known legal duty?
One reason is the way the statutory provisions are written. Specifically, § 6663 imposes the penalty for fraud but then, § 6664(c)(1), here, states (emphasis supplied): “No penalty shall be imposed under section 6662 or 6663 with respect to any portion of an underpayment if it is shown that there was a reasonable cause for such portion and that the taxpayer acted in good faith with respect to such portion.” But, as established in the criminal context, the taxpayer (called defendant in a criminal context) cannot have intended to violate a known legal duty if he had a reasonable cause/good faith defense. That surely must be true in the civil context as well.
I would appreciate readers view on this issue. Specifically, is it possible for the Government (the IRS in a Tax Court case) to prove civil fraud by clear and convincing evidence and the taxpayer then establish a reasonable cause/good faith defense?
One other thought. The regulations for the reasonable cause defense under § 6664 on only address the accuracy related penalty under § 6662. See Regs. § 1.6664-4, titled "Reasonable cause and good faith exception to section 6662 penalties." I suspect that this analysis is the reason. The reasonable cause defense is an oxymoron if § 6663 civil fraud is proved. But § 6664(c) is not the only time that Congress has legislated an oxymoron.
Addendum 1/17/20 12:00pm: